Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 01:20
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What are your thoughts on RM's new album "Right Place, Wrong Person"?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What would you do if you found out that someone had broken into your home while you were sleeping?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?